Rebutting Desiring God (#1)
“How did God reconcile all things?”
Introduction
I’m formulating my critique against John Piper’s insight of the scriptures. I also find errors in the question since it assumes that there is no hell or judgement for these sinful and fallen beings. This is fathomable and I’m not here to judge the question but the answer given by Piper. The issues I am judging is found in this website below the introduction. If you want to read his website, go ahead.
Will Everyone Be Saved? (The Wrath Interpretation)
The biggest obstacle with John Piper’s bias interpretation against universal restitution is the insistence on the literal meaning of God’s wrath. He quotes Colossians 3:5–6: “Put to death therefore what is earthly in you: sexual immorality, impurity, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry. On account of these the wrath of God is coming.” What is the divine wrath? Is it an eternal hell? Annihilationism? Or is it simply a metaphor for God allowing chaos and destruction to find its way upon sinners? It’s more likely the latter view because history supports this claim better than the post-mortem suffering (I’ll explain ahead). Paul is warning the Colossians from becoming like their enemies lest their hearts become hardened to any inspired warning. After all, sin hardens the heart, and is stubborn against change or adaptation to the situation. Paul is actually saying that God allows the devil and our sins to destroy us, in hopes of our redemption and realization in this life or the next (1st Corinthians 5:5). Some are stubborn till they realize the errors of their way, and many persist into their earthly destruction. Hopefully such an event will enable their realization in the purgative fires of God. Even Colossians says, “He has rescued us from the dominion of darkness and brought us into the kingdom of His beloved Son” (1:13). So then, God’s intent was to redeem them from the corrupt influences in this world, especially from the coming demonic and human oppression that was to transpire in their lifetime.
John Piper quotes 2nd Thessalonians, “[Those who do not obey the gospel] will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might” (1:9). Now, we need to read this passage in its historical context instead of downright assuming a postmortem context. The Greek term used for ‘eternal’ is aionios, which never conveys an endless duration but antiquity, great quality, and even an eon. Paul explains in the previous verses that God will relieve them of their suffering and contention from their enemies. Paul says: “Therefore we ourselves boast about you in the churches of God for your steadfastness and faith in all your persecutions and in the afflictions that you are enduring. This is evidence of the righteous judgment of God, that you may be considered worthy of the kingdom of God, for which you are also suffering since indeed God considers it just to repay with affliction those who afflict you, and to grant relief to you who are afflicted as well as to us, when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels” (2nd Thessalonians 1:4–7). How is God indirectly going to relieve them of their suffering without a natural catastrophe? The text continues to say: “in flaming fire, inflicting vengeance on those who do not know God and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. They will suffer the punishment of aionios destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of His might when He comes on that day to be glorified in His saints, and to be marveled at among all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed” (verse 8–10). They will suffer a penalty of destruction that is not imposed by God according to the “away from the presence of God”. And this destruction will take place when the Lord is revealed from heaven to the enemies of God. If you don’t know the historical context, you’ll assume that Paul is speaking about the end of the age of man, but this wouldn’t make sense. Because how will they be relieved in their present time of persecution if God will reveal Himself and punish His enemies at the end of the human age? I suggest looking at history; Jesus said in the gospels that all these predictions will transpire in their generation (Luke 21:5–33). Historically, Jesus predicted that the Temple would be destroyed, and that great misfortune would transpire in their lifetime. In the letter of Apollos, he writes, “Touching the matter whereby thou didst inquire in thy last epistle, I will inform thee even as I have received. I Apollos was in my house in Nazareth after the Holy City had been taken by the Romans, and the Temple of God destroyed, even as the Lord had told us. And as the sun went down and I was resting from my work, the room was filled with a bright light and there appeared unto me Agella, my sister (who had been reported as dead with many others of the brethren who were in the Holy City at the time of the siege and who have never since been seen by any to this day). And Agella spake to me saying, Brother, why grieve for me, and for the fall of Jerusalem and for the Holy House. Grieve rather that you were left behind when we with others of the brethren who were ready were taken up from the earth. For when the city was sorely besieged and the battle was the most fierce and the confusion great and terrible, there was seen by all a great wonder in the heavens. For the Lord himself appeared from the clouds with her to whom he first appeared after he rose from the dead, who announced his resurrection to the twelve, and the holy angels, according to the word that he Spake unto us while he was in the flesh…It was in a moment and we were changed in the twinkling of an eye, and those who were his enemies saw it and fled in great confusion and fell on the swords of the Romans and perished, and to me alone has it been given that I should appear unto thee for thy comfort my brother, and for the consolation of those that are left behind and those that shall come after them, that they may believe in the words spoken by the Lord before he suffered” (Apollos 1:1–5, 7). Even Apollos, who is a believer from the early church, said to himself, “the Lord certainly did say that ‘before this generation should pass away all these things should be’ ” (Apollos 1:11). So then, those who were caught in the destruction and oppression were saved (i.e. rapture) from the Roman persecution. However, the enemies of the Church witnessed Jesus and fell by the sword to the Romans. This was the aionios destruction that Paul was referring to despite his embitterment towards his enemies. Perhaps Paul intended a literal meaning, but this was not so. Either way, he was right in a sense. Perhaps he knew that the Romans would destroy their enemies, but decided to omit such information for his audience. Jewish Historian, Josephus Flavius, records this event of Jesus’ appearing in the heavens with the following: “So these publicly declared, that this signal foreshadowed the desolation that was coming upon them. Besides these, a few days after that feast, on the twenty-first day of the month Artemisius [Jyar], a certain prodigious and incredible phenomenon appeared; I suppose the account of it would seem to be a fable, were it not related by those that saw it, and were not the events that followed it of so considerable a nature as to deserve such signals; for, before sun-setting, chariots and troops of soldiers in their armor were seen running about among the clouds, and surrounding of cities. Moreover at that feast which we call Pentecost, as the priests were going by night into the inner [court of the] temple, as their custom was, to perform their sacred ministrations, they said that, in the first place, they felt a quaking, and heard a great noise, and after that they heard a sound as of a great multitude, saying, ‘Let us remove hence’ ” (Jewish War 6:296–300). Church historian Eusebius also records this event in Ecclesiastical History, Book 3, Chapter 8, Sections 1–6. So no, Paul wasn’t referring to post-mortem annihilation or hellfire, but simply asserting the coming of Jesus in 70 A.D. and the coming destruction by the Roman army. Without historical context, these passages become enigmatic and broadly speculative to the mind. John Piper shouldn’t take Paul’s words out of literary and historical context.
As for Matthew 25:46, “And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.” This is simply a mistranslated verse based on a great misunderstanding of ‘aionios’ and “aionios kolasis” simply means great-abiding correction instead of eternal punishment. ‘Kolasis’ was always understood by the Greek Fathers like Origen, Clement, and Gregory (who are very familiar with Koine Greek) as being corrective and beneficial for the wrongdoer, rather than being aimed at the gratification of the victim. Hebrews 6:5 proves that aionios cannot convey an endless duration since forever cannot be in the near future; it extends to infinity and it is never within the present time. Hebrews says “the powers of the age to come” instead of “the powers of forever that is to come”. Any sapient logician would fathom the latter translation as nonsensical, impossible, and self-contradictory.
Then John Piper uses Revelation as a proof text for eternal torment. His quotation of it is this: “And the smoke of their torment goes up forever and ever, and they have no rest, day or night, these worshipers of the beast and its image, and whoever receives the mark of its name” (14:11). Again, John is using translations based on traditional bias, which doesn’t help his case at all. The term used for ‘torment’ is ‘basanismou’, which has an old history of conveying as ‘test’ as in by a touchstone. A touchstone is used to expose the purity of a metal, which fits perfectly with the lake of fire imagery. The lake of fire conveys the idea of a crucible. Even in the book of Proverbs, the work of refining metals is compared to the work of the Lord. “A crucible for silver, and a smelter for gold, and the LORD is the tester of hearts” (Proverbs 17:3). So the smoke of their ‘testing’ will transpire eons and eons instead of forever and ever. They will be tested and purified by the fires of God for an indefinite period. But then, they shall be welcomed by the Spirit and the Bride into aionios life (Revelation 22:17). It makes no sense if this verse is referring to believers, because the Bride represents the whole church instead of the lost. Most likely, they are indirectly referring to those who are being tried yet to be saved by fire (1st Corinthians 3:15). It is possible that John was hiding his intent slightly to immature and embittered Christians from knowing about the eventual redemption of the wicked (and the Satan). In other words, everyone will be saved, whether some by the Fire or some by the Blood. But both natures (i.e. fire and blood) are the manifestations of God’s redemptive love.
What Does ‘All Things’ Mean? (It means what it plainly says, John)
Why does Paul omit “under the earth”? And I say that because he uses that phrase in Philippians 2:10, when he says that every knee will bow to Jesus and confess that he’s Lord — every knee “in heaven and on earth and under the earth.” Even the unsaved will grant that Jesus is Lord.
But this statement makes no sense theologically. I mean doesn’t Paul say, “If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved” (Romans 10:9)? So even if the wicked confesses that Jesus is Lord, doesn’t that imply that they will be saved as well. I mean doesn’t Paul also say, “So I want you to know that no one speaking by the Spirit of God will curse Jesus, and no one can say Jesus is Lord, except by the Holy Spirit” (1st Corinthians 12:3)? So how can the wicked confess Jesus is Lord without the Holy Spirit unless they have consented to His presence within their hearts? And according to Paul’s logic, if anyone confesses “Jesus is Lord” with their hearts, they’ll be saved as a result which includes the eventual confessions of the wicked. In other words, Paul is saying even the imprisoned, that is, the wicked, will confess and repent in order to be saved.
In the LXX text of Isaiah 45:23 where Paul is quoting, the term ‘confess’ is ‘exomologeō’ which conveys the idea of acknowledging through gladness or praise. In other words, Paul is professing that the wicked will confess gladly that Jesus is Lord, not with embitterment or reluctance. It wouldn’t be logical to assume that they will gladly confess Jesus as Lord, and then be thrown into destruction or torment permanently. If Paul meant only the elect since Calvinists appeal to that self-beguiled interpretation, then Paul, Peter, and even Jesus should’ve asserted it plainly. Also, just because Paul omits a long phrase of inclusion (which is annoying to repeat), doesn’t imply that he didn’t believe in postmortem salvation. I mean, even Peter says that Jesus descended into the spirits in prison who rebelled in the days of Noah, in order to preach the good news to them (1st Peter 3:18, 19). Not only does Paul’s logic betray John Piper’s theology, but also the specific word choices of the Koine Greek. The text meant what it simply asserted. And regardless, “under the earth” is still within the domain of the earth, John. You haven’t disproved the universalist logic, that is, all will be saved.
What Needs Reconciliation in Heaven? (Idk maybe fallen angels)
Let’s turn to the second question: What would it mean to speak of reconciling anything or any being in heaven? What in heaven needs reconciling? What would Paul mean when he says that through Christ God reconciles to himself, “whether on earth or in heaven,” all things? And one answer is implicit in what I’ve already said — namely, he may not be talking about reconciling what is in heaven now but what will inhabit the new heavens and the new earth. And his point is, nothing contaminated by sin will inhabit the new heavens and the new earth that’s not reconciled to God. Everything will be reconciled that’s there.
John, if you don’t understand Jewish allusions, you’re going to presuppose false ideas about the statements of the apostles. The “heavens and the earth” mentioned in Revelation are not literal dimensions of reality, yet it is a Jewish allusion to the Temple of God, which was destroyed in 70 AD. I don’t suppose God is too intolerant to reveal His presence on earth due to sins in the past, and why would God have to change the literal heavens if there is no sin present there, or any contamination due to its perfect state? So far, this is just a mental gymnastic of denying the obvious, but his tradition refuses to be transparent so that the veil upon him may no longer hinder his sight of understanding. Jesus replaces the old system that held God’s apparent glory with a new system, that is, the Holy Spirit dwelling in believers. He even said that “heaven and earth will pass away but not My words” (Luke 21:33). This implies that His Spirit will perpetuate Jesus’ presence and communion within believers, instead of further tolerating the old system. The remaining spiritual agents like the “evil spirits in heavenly places” are the only entities that are not yet reconciled to God (Ephesians 6:12). So according to Paul, any hostile spiritual force in the heavens will eventually be reconciled to God. None of the apostles, not even John the Beloved, suggest that God will destroy the Satan, but rather He came to destroy the works of the Devil (1st John 3:8). I know this verse is in relation to His incarnation, but if God and the apostles really hated the devil, you would think they would suggest God destroying him for good (I have already proven this isn’t the case in Revelation since its mere mis-translations and its a very symbolic book rather than a literal discourse).
How Does Jesus’s Blood Make Peace? (By Renewing the Hostile Mind)
One last question: How does the blood of Jesus establish peace in heaven and on earth? Paul says, “making peace by the blood of his cross” (Colossians 1:20). And I add this question for two reasons. One, because we know that demonic beings not only inhabit the earth but are referred to, for example, in Ephesians 6:12 as being operative in the heavenly places. For example, Job teaches that Satan had some kind of access to God. The other reason I ask this question is because Paul connects the blood of Christ with the defeat of the demonic rulers and authorities in Colossians 2:15. So, right after saying that the record of our sins, the record of our debts, is nailed to the cross so that our guilt is removed and our forgiveness is secure, he says in Colossians 2:15 that God, by this work of Christ, stripped (or disarmed) the demonic powers and shamed them and triumphed over them in him.
It’s interesting that John is aware of fallen angels having access to the heavenly realms, yet fails to comprehend the correlation of universal salvation and their presence in the heavens. Colossians 2:13–15 is about the atonement ultimately defeating the devil’s works in shaming our minds away from God (as he did with Judas in Matthew 27:3–5). He defeats the devil’s usage of deception and shame on humans by revealing God as an unconditionally forgiving being. Because of our knowledge of God’s forgiveness, we have the tendency to not be consumed with shame and depart from the Lord. Because He is forgiving even in the presence of our worst state of mind, which He displayed on the Cross, we should not be ashamed of approaching Him, or presuppose that God will reject us. And Christ came to bring peace to humans, so that by the work of the Cross, they should be “compelled” by His love for us to join Him (Titus 2:11–14; 2nd Corinthians 5:14, 15, 18, 19). They were alienated and enemies of God in their minds because their sins blinded them from the Truth, but Christ came to undo the veils of deception and corruption (Colossians 1:21). Also to add, yes, Jesus came to defeat the spiritual rulers of evil, but this doesn’t imply that God won’t eventually reconcile them. The work of reconciliation isn’t instantaneous, but it is a progressive process just as He created the world with much patience instead of as an instantaneous work. Paul also said that “all His enemies will be under His feet” and this will transpire by befriending all of His enemies back to Himself (1st Corinthians 15:25). So far, John Piper hasn’t refuted the universalist notion. If ‘all’ shall be saved, then this includes the wicked and the satanic forces. There’s no other means in interpreting the universalist text; sometimes, the best interpretation for the text is the plain meaning rather than all these mental gymnastics. He claims there will be peace, but how if our loved ones are consigned forever in torment or annihilation? The hope of the gospel is in full effect if we know innately that all shall be saved. Amen.
